claim 41
What God has joined together, let no man hangs, because Who divorces and includes re-marriage, the adulteress
Whoever he divorced his wife and marry another, commits adultery against her. And if she divorced herself from her husband and marries another, commits adultery. (Mark 10:11-12)
Anyone who leaves his wife and sees another, commits adultery, and whoever marries abandoned by her husband, commits adultery. (Luke 16:18)
also said, "Whoever has left his wife, let her da divorce. But I say that anyone who leaves his wife, except for fornication reason, leads her to commit adultery, and whoever abandoned married, commits adultery. (Matthew 5:31-32)
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife except for fornication, and shall marry another, commits adultery, and whoever cleared married, commits adultery. (Mt 19:9)
J ezus set higher standards of marital fidelity, than Moses or Jewish teachers of his day. Dopuszczanej not confirmed by the Order of the possibility of divorce (5 M 24) explaining that it was introduced because of the hardness of heart "(Mt 19:8), and hinting that he had come to address it. In this chapter we try to determine how high the standards of marital fidelity introduced Jesus.
According to the law of Moses divorce does not remove the unity created by God
I believe that Jesus saw a higher standard of marital relationships not only in the description of creation (1 M 2:24), but also in the same wording in the law of admissibility of the divorce (5 M 24:1-4), which shows that divorce and re-marriage does not destroy completely unique bond one body, which creates bond of marriage. Consider this Old Testament clause:
If anyone will understand the woman as a wife, and then it happens that she does not find pleasure in his eyes, because he has discovered in her something indecent, it will write her a bill of divorce, gives it it and celebrate it with his house. If she leaves his house and marry another, as well as the second husband dislikes her and also writes her a letter of divorce, gives it to her and dismissed her from her home, or if the second husband, who married her, dies, it is her first husband, who dismissed it will not be able to re-grasp it as a wife, since it was regarded as unclean by it, because it is an abomination before the Lord. So Do not bring sin on the land which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance. (5 M 24:1-4)
distinctive thing about the above clause is that, despite the admissibility of divorce, a woman who was celebrated up polluting going to marry again (v. 4). It's perhaps a negative answer to a question from the Pharisees of Jesus concerning the admissibility of divorce resulted not only from the description contained in the declaration creating the original purpose of marriage (1 M 1:27 and 2:24), but also of the implications of a divorce clause contained in the Book of Deuteronomy ( 5 M 24:4), that re-marriage after divorce despite the admissibility rozwodników pollutes. In other words, Moses' writings contain clues that divorce was allowed because of the hardness of the human heart, and he divorced and re-marriage is not the best way to worship God.
According to the law of Moses celebrated woman could not return to her first husband, even after her second husband died (because it is "an abomination" - verse 4). This shows that you should not destroy the second marriage in order to restore first. For this theme I shall return later, now we just say that we should not solve the second or even third marriage contracted in disobedience to the commandments, but to confess that such a link is not compatible with the original intention of God, and yet it is sanctified by God's mercy. In the eyes of God is better than multiple violations of the vows of fidelity.
ban without exception
two Gospels contain sayings of Jesus, which is an unconditional prohibition of divorce and re-marry. In the first, Jesus said: "Anyone who leaves his wife and sees another, commits adultery, and whoever marries abandoned by her husband, commits adultery" (Luke 16:18). It seems, therefore, conclude that each of the marriage after a divorce, Jesus called adultery. This is a strong statement. Jesus calls remarriage after divorce adultery apparently because the first marriage are considered to be still in force. So he takes the position contrary to Jewish custom during the period in which each case to be cleared his wife gave her the right to re-marry.
The above statement of Jesus is contained even one thought: "He who marries abandoned by her husband, commits adultery." It leads to the conclusion that not only commits adultery divorcee containing remarried, but also everyone who marries a divorcee. This is all the more remarkable because a woman celebrated for her husband is not guilty of a divorce because her husband is celebrating her and marry another woman commits adultery. Apparently he had no reason to celebrate his wife, that is, it did not make anything that would justify a divorce. However, according to the above statement of Jesus, anyone who marries a woman abandoned, "commits adultery."
is a hard statement. A woman whose husband left to marry another, shall be appointed by Jesus to show the holiness of their marriage vows, and the substance of the covenant of marriage by not going to marry again. Because these statements do not contain any exceptions to this rule, and he apparently rejected the Jewish culture of universal assent to the divorce with the right to re-marriage, compared to the first readers of Luke's Gospel, it is difficult to see any exceptions to this rule based on the alleged acceptance of divorce by the Jewish tradition of Jesus.
second statement of Jesus with an unconditional prohibition of divorce and re-marry is contained in the Gospel of Mark. Jesus said, "Whoever divorced his wife and marry another, commits adultery against her. And if she divorced herself from her husband and marries another, commits adultery "(Mark 10:11-12). These verses are a repetition of the first part of the previous statement of Jesus (Luke 16:18), but going further contain a statement, commits adultery not only every divorcee, who is getting married again, but also celebrated every woman who gets married again. These verses, like the earlier statement of Jesus (Luke 16:18), does not provide for any exception to this rule.
Since Jesus considered the conclusion of repeated marriages after divorce for adultery, even if innocent parties divorce, therefore, it seems that these two sayings of Jesus (Luke 16:18 and Mark 10:11-12) contain an absolute prohibition repeated marriages after divorce. In addition, other sayings of Jesus (Matthew 19:6 and Mark 10:9), confirm that God has joined together married couples, and therefore no man should separate them.
Did Jesus permitted divorce in Matthew 5:32?
issue of divorce and re-marriage is controversial because of the other sayings of Jesus: "And I say to you that anyone who leaves his wife, except for fornication reason, leads her to commit adultery, and whoever abandoned married, commits adultery "(Matthew 5:32), and:" Whosoever shall put away his wife except for fornication, and shall marry another, commits adultery, and whoever cleared married, commits adultery "(Mt 19:9). Both of these statements is interpreted widely as permitting divorce and remarriage in cases where one party commits a "sexual immorality in the field." But such is the meaning of these verses, called "exception clause"?
contents of the first of these verses ("leads her to commit adultery" Matthew 5:32) indicates that he assumes that in most situations, every woman celebrated for her husband will want to remarry. However, despite these cultural pressures on re-marriage by admitted women, Jesus forbids marriage in such cases. The content of his words shows that re-married a woman celebrated for no reason, however, is adultery: "Anyone who leaves his wife, leads her to commit adultery" (Matthew 5:32). This would mean that a second marriage is shameful not only for the person who committed the infidelity in the first marriage, but also in the case of a person who, in his first marriage remained faithful spouse. Other Jesus forbade the concluding words of repeated marriages rozwodników based on the principle of inviolability of the marital bond, and not the causes of divorce.
Therefore, this verse (Matthew 5:32) does not teach that in some cases it is fair to conclude the re-marriage after divorce. Quite the opposite - that this verse confirms that re-marriage after divorce is adultery, even if it is concluded past the person who in the previous view complied with fidelity to his spouse, and that the man who celebrates his wife is guilty of adultery involving the conclusion of the re-marriage, and that anyone who marries abandoned by her husband, even though he in no way at fault, also commits adultery. Hence the final conclusion of this statement: "and whoever abandoned married, commits adultery."
But before we proceed to discuss the clause authorizing the divorce, let's look at a similar sayings of Jesus on the subject.
exception clause in Matthew 19:9
second statement of Jesus, which seems to contain a clause authorizing the divorce and re-marriage, is as follows: "And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife except for fornication, and shall marry another, commits adultery, and whoever cleared married, commits adultery" (Mt 19:9). Is presented here is an exception that, in certain circumstances, a person who is married to divorce and may include a new relationship? So, after all considers most commentators and followers of Jesus. But I think that this verse for something like this does not allow. I think it might help here be my testimony describing the change in my point of view on this issue.
Throughout his adult life, I thought that adultery and desertion of the spouse constitute a reasonable basis for the conclusion of the divorce and re-marriage. In this climate, I lived, and Jesus' words in Matthew 19:9 contained interpreted as confirmation of this opinion, even though according to my understanding Other teaching the New Testament points to the opposite opinion. It is time, in which my understanding of this issue has been shaken.
first made me wonder why in the Gospel of Mark and Luke, Jesus' absolute condemnation of divorce and remarriage (Mark 10:11-12 and Łk16: 18) was not repeated in the Gospel of Matthew. If Matthew's Gospel contains a clause acceptability of divorce and remarriage, so why not repeat the prohibition contained in those Gospels? Bothered me with the assumption adopted by many authors, that the Gospel of Matthew describes in detail the issues that truly understand the audience of that time Jesus, as well as readers of the Gospel of Luke and brand.
Is Jesus really the audience assumed that the teaching of Jesus condemning divorce and re-marriage allows exceptions to this rule? I began to know this for serious doubts. So I started to further analyze the teaching of Jesus about marriage in the Gospel of Matthew for his eventual compliance with the absolute prohibition of divorce and remarriage, contained in the Gospel of Mark and Luke.
Another thing that I wondered, was the question of terminology. Therefore, in Matthew the word porneiav ( porneja - sexual immorality in the field) and not moiceia ( moicheia ), which is adultery? But in marriage, sexual immorality is adultery. But in Matthew's Gospel, Jesus uses the word for general sexual immorality in the field, without specific reference to marital infidelity. It seems that almost all commentators of the Bible on the assumption that in the context of the sayings of Jesus porneja refers to adultery. Why does the evangelist Matthew did not use the word for straight adultery ( moicheia ) when exactly he meant such a sin?
During these considerations, I noticed some interesting thing. In Matthew porneja term occurs only in a few places - 5:32 and 19:9 and 15:9, where it occurs together with moicheia. It follows that the evangelist Matthew uses the term porneja to define sin other than adultery. Does this imply that the term porneja in the Gospel of Matthew is something other than marital infidelity (adultery) and to be understood as, for example, incest, or fornication?
Another clue in my reflections on this subject found in the Gospel of John (Jn 8:41), in a scene in which Jewish leaders accused Jesus of being born because of sexual immorality brand ( porneja ). Jewish leaders did not accept the fact of the virgin birth of Jesus, because they thought that his mother - Mary, has committed sexual immorality, as a result, Jesus was born. On the basis of this verse, I started to analyze contained in Matthew's Gospel narrative of the birth of Jesus (Matthew 1:18-20).
clauses allowing for divorce and the betrothal of Joseph and Mary
In describing the birth of Jesus, Joseph and Mary are called husband ( aner) and wife ( gyne), even though they were only together engaged. This is probably due to the fact that the Greek terms "husband" and "wife" also means "man" and woman ", and also because at the time the engagement entailed a much more serious commitment than it is today. Evangelist describes that Joseph decided to celebrate Mary (her divorce), although they were only together engaged and were not yet husband and wife (Matthew 1:19). As used herein, the term "exit" ( apolu `sai ) occur simultaneously in other places: Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9. Most important is here a description of an evangelist, who writes that Joseph was a righteous man, and decided to celebrate Mary, because in his eyes committed a sin of sexual immorality ( porneja ). In other words, the account of the Evangelist Joseph as a man just wanted to act in accordance with accepted standards.
Only the Gospel of Matthew describes this internal crisis of Joseph, who wondered whether to marry his fiancee, who in his original understanding of the sin committed sexual immorality ( porneja ). Ewagelia describes that Joseph was a man = Fair, therefore, decided to celebrate Mary. This description indicates that the evangelist Matthew did not recognize the celebration of his wife in such situations for badness. Such proceedings are not zamykałoby Joseph (or Mary) the possibility to conclude the re-marriage.
Since only the Gospel of Matthew includes this relationship describing this problem, because only the evangelist felt the need to clarify that the absolute prohibition of Jesus on divorce and remarriage does not cover a situation analogous to that of Joseph and Mary. For this reason, the Gospel This includes a clause acceptability of divorce: "K tokolwiek put away his wife except for fornication [ porneja ], and shall marry another, commits adultery, and whoever cleared married, commits adultery."
general objection to this interpretation stems from the fact that the sayings of Jesus described in Matthew 19:3-9 and Matthew 5:31-32 relate to marriage, not the betrothed persons. According to this logic, the admissibility of dehiscence expressed in the words "except for fornication" does not apply to married couples. But I believe that given by the proponents of this interpretation, context is the essence of the clause authorizing the divorce. The interpretation of the admissibility of a divorce depends on your perspective. I do not consider it pointless so here's interpretation of the sayings of Jesus contained in Matthew 5:32: "And I say to you that anyone who leaves his wife, reason except fornication [ porneja ] betrothal period, leads her to commit adultery ". In this interpretation, Jesus clearly states that the action it intended to take his earthly guardian - Joseph, consisting the rejection of Mary, because of sin porneia, it would not be unjust. It would be fair. The clause relates to the admissibility of divorce, just that kind of situation.
This interpretation of the clause acceptability of divorce has several advantages:
· inconsistency does not impose the sayings of Jesus in the Gospel of Matthew with his bright, an absolute prohibition of divorce and remarriages recorded in the Gospels of Mark and Luke.
· explains why the clause authorizing the divorce in Matthew's Gospel is the term porneja , not moicheja .
· coincides to that of the Gospel of Matthew's use of the term porneia (indecency) in the sense other than that used in the Mt 15:19 term moicheja (adultery).
· fits the broader context of a situation in which Mary, Joseph decided to check in (Matthew 1:19).
What this crude principle derive lessons for marriage? To say in the next chapter.
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